I think the unifying tie is that they are examples of abuse between genders. And DV clearly fits there. If I'm mistaken, then what would "Intimate Violence" mean instead that also isn't already covered under the other items listed (harassment, assault, eploitation, stalking)?
I'll admit that this is a tedious thing to argue on a message board(civilly of course) but this is a legitimate contract law(breach) issue that would absolutely be challenged by a coach who has their contract voided under this provision for failure to report, what presently, (since none of us have seen the police reports (have we? I'm not following day to day) to evaluate the real time environment of the abuse) does not appear to be misconduct of a sexual nature. My own ten second analysis of this excerpt suggests the provision is borne out of a specific Title IX (a law) policy that appears to be specifically related to
sexual misconduct. Not all violence against a person could possibly be considered intimate violence. Unless a court has found that any violence against a spouse or partner qualifies as intimate violence. I don't know the answer to that.
hypothetical: If the abuse occurred at a public place, say a bar. Sexual misconduct? Intimate violence?
If the abuse occurred in the home, but say in the living room, kitchen. Sexual misconduct? Intimate violence?
In the bedroom, but not during moments of intimacy consensual or otherwise?
Put another way, what else is Meyer required to report? Knowledge of fraud? Theft? assaults of a non-sexual nature? Duty to report or disclose X are in every contract I ever draft/read or execute. They aren't always read broadly.
The short version: In a pure contract law sense, I don't think this provision demonstrates an iron clad duty to report all types of violent misconduct, just those defined above. Perhaps there's dispositive case law on the matter. I don't know. Again this only addresses whether or not Ohio State can void his contract, not whether Meyer should have done X, or didn't do X.
